catmadni

Doc,

My situation is so similar to Pf’s that I responded to this post. Please advise if youn want me tore-post or move me as you see fit

I am a 48 year old male. I have had a anterior cervical microdiscectomy in 2001. Otherwise healthy.

I have suffered intermittent lumbar back pain, spasm, etc, without radiciopathy, for approx 12 years. This summer the episode were more frequent and unresolving.

On 9/28 I had a lumbar sacral MRI done which indicated several bulges and herniations to varying degrees. Most notably was a large herniations at L4/5 to the left. Again no radiciopathy of any kind, weakness, numbness, on the left side. I was scheduled for a epidural steroid injection. On 10/9 I had sudden onset of severe stabbing pain in the back of my left thigh. I was like an unrelenting “Charlie horse”. I lasted 3 days. Then my left rear butt, thigh, calf heel and particularly the side of my left foot were numb. It lasted 3 days. In the fifth day of this 6 day episode, I saw my neurologist who I told about the episode and during examination, he found no left ankle jerk. He remarked about the symptoms I was exhibiting seemed related to the s1 nerve root. However he told me to see a surgeon now.

I selected a neurosurgeon (NS) in some haste due to the neurological findings by the neurologist. The neurosurgeon examined me of course, and I mentioned the remarks of the neurologist regarding the S1 symptoms. He dismissed it that the symptoms could easily be related to L4/5.1. A posterior lumbar partial discectomy of L4/5 was scheduled for 10/21. However on 10/19 I realized that I had lost my ability to lift my self by my left calf

The planned surgery was done emergency on the basis that my new symptoms were a progression of the disease at the same L4/5 level.

Expecting to find complete relief immediately following surgery, as was the case with the 2001 anterior cervical microdiscectomy , I was disappointed. In fact I felt my symptoms were worse. I was convinced that something was missed.

I reiterated the onset of the “charlie horse” and the numbness symptoms with the NS. I even added a prelude event that had occurred. I thought little of this at the time because of its subtlety. A day prior to the onset of the “Charlie horse”‘ Iwhile doing some kitchen chores I felt a strange movement in my back.

I had deliberately laid the groundwork for the NS to do a follow up MRI, because he had reason to believe something occurred post the 9/28 MRI, in which it seemed he was entirely relying on. He ordered the MRI. Due to storm Sandy here on the east coast it was not until 11/6 that the MRI was read to indicate a large fragment from L4/5 had migrated down the canal and settled on the S1 nerve root.

A second surgery was done on 11/9. My loss of of calf raise is still the same. I am attending physical therapy for the leg only.

Sorry for so much detail. Not withstanding any misstep by anyone in this process, including myself, would it be safe to say that the nerve compression was always at the S1 nerve root which began at least at the onset of the “Charlie horse” pain on 10/9 and ended with the second procedure on 11/9′ or 30 days of compression? And considering the severe downturn in symptoms upon first compression, the duration of the compression, and my continued symptoms of calf weakness, what would you expect my eventual outcome to be? And what could I do to allow myself the best outcome?

I appreciate you reading my post and answering the questions at the end. I am concerned about being permanently impaired at such a young healthy age.