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Thanks very much. You described it perfectly. Do you think that a 7 day course of oral prednisone scaled from 60 to 40 to 20 mg is enough. For instance would staying on it for a few more days work better, or could that prejudice the success of a posterior fusion?
Hi Dr. Corenman,
I just wanted to give you a further update. The neurosurgeon started me on prednisone (60mg for 4 days, then 40 mg for 3 days, then 20mg for two days, and it seems to be helping). Hopefully it’s not just temporary. He wants to hold off on the MRI while I am on the prednisone. He then wants to do a CT scan in a few weeks to see how the fusion looks both from the prior ACDF and from this posterior instrumentation. Hopefully the prednisone doesn’t prejudice the fusion from occurring.
ThanksPlease see below, this went through in error.
Please see below. This went through in error. Thanks.
In May I had ACDF at C5-7, but had continuing bad shoulderblade pain and numbness and right arm pain and numbness. After 5 months this area only had a little bit of fusion. So in December, laminoforaminotomy was performed on the right side of C5-7. After that surgery the numbness and pain were completely gone. The numbness returned three weeks after surgery on the right arm, and six weeks after surgery the shoulderblade pain and numbness returned.
The relevant portion of the operating room notes pertaining to the recent surgery state in part:
“The C7 nerve root was identified in the lateral recess and followed out of the foremen and was completely decompressed.
I then worked at the C5-6 level where I was a little broader in terms of the bone removal because this was a tighter area. Again excellent decompression was achieved. C6 nerve root was seen and was nicely pulsatile. There was a small bit of movement between C5-6 and because of the amount of bone resected, I elected to instrument this area.”
The report describes the instrumentation on the right as being screws and a rod and autografts.
Hopefully this clarifies things.
Thanks
Thanks again. Instrumentation was placed at all levels (C5-7), but only on the right. I think this was both to stabilize the right and to help the front possibly fuse. My assumption is that it was better to fuse the right, then not fuse from the back at all, if the front was not fusing? Pehaps fusing from both sides posteriorly would have been more invasive. I remember after my ACDF, the MRI showed a lot of shadows. Would an MRI now show a possible foramin hematoma or what may be going on?
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